i don’t know either that it can be argued this definition has been obsoleted. we’re still talking about it and Prop 8 passed in california.

It makes me cringe to think about cases like these, but it just shows how silly it gets (and how disturbingly preposterous it can be) when one follows a strict definition of a social construct.

Further more, if we get into technicalities, is a marriage considered consummated if one party does not remember the intercourse or was cognitively disabled (by alcohol or drugs) during the act? Is orgasm or ejaculation a requirement? Does one organ have to come in contact with the other? If yes, then how about condom use?

For that matter, how does the state know that a marriage is consummated? Do people have to produce porno-styled video of their bedroom action to prove that their marriage is in fact penis-in-vagina-intercourse-consummated?

Obviously the state would never require video tape proof of consummation — in which case consummation of marriage comes only after paternity testing of the first born, which, once again, as these nut heads always did, reduce the meaning of marriage to procreation.

However, even that is problematic — how does the state know that conception was not performed using a turkey baster, and the husband ever penetrated the wife’s vagina with his penis?